Lakshmi-Vilas-Bank Placement-Paper
Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs.100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs.110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs.10, or else, it came down by Rs.10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.
Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.?
If on any day, the closing price was above Rs.110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs.90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.?
1. If Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS on three consecutive days, while Michael sold 10 shares only once during the five days, what was the price of MCS at the end of day 3?
(1) Rs.90 (2) Rs.100 (3) Rs.110 -Answer (4) Rs.120 (5) Rs.130
2. If Chetan ended up with Rs.1300 more cash than Michael at the end of day 5, what was the price of the MCS share at the end of day 4?
(1) Rs.90 (2) Rs.100-Answer (3) Rs.110 (4) Rs.120 (5) Not uniquely determinable
3. If Michael ended up with 20 more shares than Chetan at the end of days 5, what was the price of the shares at the and of day 3?
(1) Rs.90 -Answer(2) Rs.100 (3) Rs.110 (4) Rs.120 (5) Rs.130-Answer
4. If Michael ended up with Rs.100 less cash than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the difference in the number of shares possessed by Michael and Chetan (at the end of day 5)?
(1) Michael had 10 less shares than Chetan.
(2) Michael had 10 more shares than Chetan.
(3) Chetan had 10 more shares than Michael.
(4) Chetan had 20 more shares than Michael.
(5) Both had the same number of shares.-Answer
5. What could have been the maximum possible increase in combined cash balance of Chetan and Michael at the end of the fifth day?
(1) Rs.3700 (2) Rs.4000 (3) Rs.4700 (4) Rs.5000 -Answer(5) Rs.6000
Explanation:
Here the total increase in the price of the share is Rs.10.
Hence, of the five days, there must be an increase for three of the five days and there is decrease for two days.
1. (3) Given that, Michael sold 10 shares only once. Hence, the price is more than 110 for only one day and on all the remaining days it is not more than 110. We can get the share price as 120 with three increase and two decreases. But as the three increases are on consecutive days, the three days can be (Day 1, Day 2, Day 3) or (Day 2, Day 3, Day 4,) or (Day 3, Day 4, Day 5). But it cannot be (Day 1, Day 2, Day3), the reason being that the price will be more than 110 on day 2 as well as Day 3, It cannot be (Day 3, Day 4, Day 5) the reason being that the price cannot be 120 on any of the days.
The increase must be on (Day 2, Day3, Day4,).
There is a decrease on Day 1 and Day 5
The price at the end of Day 3 is 100-10+10+10=110.
2. (2) Given that Chetan ended up with Rs.1300 more than Michael at the end of Day 5. The maximum possible change in the amount with Chetan with Rs.1300, as he sells shares on three days and buys shares on the remaining two days.
Michael should not have sold any shares and also he should not have bought any shares.
The share price did not cross 110 or did not fall below 90 on any of the days. The price of the share at the end of Day 4 cannot be 120. It must be 100.
3. (1) Chetan will sell 10 shares each for three days and buy shares for two days. Hence, if he had x shares at the beginning of Day 1, he finally had (x-10) shares at the end of Day 5. Michael had (x+10) shares on Day 5. He bought 10 shares on one of the five days i.e shares price should be less than 90 on that day. It should be 80. Hence, the only possibility is 100-90-80-90-100-100 Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 It is 90 at the end of Day 3.
4. (5) If the difference in the shares is 10 or more, the difference in the amounts would be close to Rs.1000, but it is given the difference is Rs.100.
The number of shares with them must be the same. The following table represents one of the possibilities where Michael ended up with Rs.100 less than Chetan, while both of them ended up with the same number of shares.
Beginning Ending
Day 1 100 110
Day 2 110 120
Day 3 120 110
Day 4 110 100
Day 5 100 110
5.(4) The maximum possible cash balance is possible, when both of them sell the maximum number of shares.
That happens in the following case.
Beginning Ending
Day 1 100 110
Day 2 110 120
Day 3 120 130
Day 4 130 120
Day 5 120 110
The change in amount with Chetan
= (110×10) + (120×10) + (130×10) – (120×10) – (110×10) =1300
That with Michael = (120×10) + (130×10) + (120×10) = 3700
Total = Rs.5000.
Lakshmi Vilas Bank recruitment test analytical ability questions and answers,
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Sand
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall
Ans : (E)
2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (D)
4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of—17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (D)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass
Ans : (E)
7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) These questions are based on the following letter/number/ symbol arrangement.
Study it carefully and answer the questions.
T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 D A 2 B © Q K 3 1 ● U H 6 L
11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) E@%
(B) #78
(C) 5EJ
(D) U6●
(E) QKB
Ans : (E)
13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)
14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
TL8 #6I 7HF ?
(A) FUJ
(B) JU●
(C) FU●
(D) JU5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ?
(A) 1
(B) ●
(C) F
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) is correct answer and indicate it on the answersheet. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
Ans : (C)
16. Statements :
Some cards are plastics.
Some Plastics are metals.
All metals are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are cards.
II. No pot is a card.
Ans : (C)
17. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. All tables are buses.
II. All trains are tables.
Ans : (A)
18. Statements :
Some machines are computers.
Some computers are calculators.
Some calculators are phones.
Conclusions :
I. Some phones are computers.
II. Some computers are machines.
Ans : (B)
19. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
Some bowls are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are spoons.
II. Some plates are bowls.
Ans : (D)
20. Statements :
Some envelopes are packets.
Some packets are boxes.
All boxes are parcels.
Conclusions :
I. Some parcels are packets.
II. Some parcels are boxes.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the datain Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ?
I. D reached before J and F but after B.
II. B was not the first to reach office.
Ans : (E)
22. What is the code for ‘not’ in the code language ?
I. In the code language ‘do not go’ is written as ‘la ra de’.
II. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘ka ma ra.’
Ans : (D)
23. How many children are there in the class ?
I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top.
II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita.
Ans : (E)
24. How is Neela related to Deepa ?
I. Neela’s mother is Deepa’s brother’s wife.
II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepa’s mother.
Ans : (C)
25. R is in which direction with respect to T ?
I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T.
II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) These questions are based on the following arrangements I & II. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow—
I. P T 7 A # 4 B C 3 @ K F 1 9 ●
II. E H L © 6 8 $ U 5 J M 2 D% 1
26. How many such symbols are there in arrangements I & II together each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a numeral ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
27. If P7© : TAL : : B3J : ?
(A) @KJ
(B) C@J
(C) C@5
(D) 3KJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. Which element will be third to the right of seventh element from right end in the arrangement I if the order of its elements is reversed ?
(A) 7
(B) #
(C) F
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the position of the elements in the above two arrangements ?
H7 ©# 8B ?
(A) U3
(B) $C
(C) 3J
(D) UC
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. If the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth elements in arrangement II are replaced by the respective elements in arrangement I, which element will be third to the left of sixth element from the right end in arrangement II ?
(A) $
(B) B
(C) 7
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Symbols @, %, ●, $ and # are used with following meanings—
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A ● B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B.’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
31. Statements : G @ H, H ● Q, Q $ M
Conclusions : I. M % G
II. H $ M
Ans : (E)
32. Statements : F ● B, B @ E, E # J
Conclusions : I. F @ E
II. J $ B
Ans : (A)
33. Statements : R $ H, H % M, M # F
Conclusions : I. F $ H
II. F @ R
Ans : (D)
34. Statements : T # L, L % W, W @ V
Conclusions : I. L % V
II. T % W
Ans : (B)
35. Statements : K % L, L # T, I $ T
Conclusions : I. L % I
II. L ● I
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) These questions are based on the following information—
Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on Developing Managerial skills in seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily the same.
J organizes workshop in Company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for Company F. T conducts workshop for Company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on Monday but not for Company C or G. M conducts workshop for Company A but not on
Tuesday.
36. Who conducts workshop on Saturday ?
(A) M
(B) Q
(C) L
(D) Q or L
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. On which day does Q conduct the workshop ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. M conducts workshop on which day ?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Which of the following combinations of person-company and day is correct ?
(A) K–B–Wednesday
(B) R–B–Monday
(C) K–C–Monday
(D) K–G–Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
40. Who conducts workshop for Company C and on which day ?
(A) R, Thursday
(B) R, Tuesday
(C) Q, Saturday
(D) Q, Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) Below in each question are given two statements (a) and (b). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause
41. (a) Government of state ‘X’ imposed a higher sales tax on petroleum products compared to the neighbouring states.
(b) All the petrol pumps in the state observed ‘bandh’ in protest.
Ans : (A)
42. (a) Attendance for the All India examination held in July 2006 was poor at all the centres.
(b) Western States of the country were affected by heavy floods during July 2006.
Ans : (D)
43. (a) High Court has declared stay on construction of residential buildings on the land under dispute.
(b) A large number of middle class salaries people had booked flats in the buildings under dispute.
Ans : (C)
44. (a) Residents in the locality have now decided to launch a cleanliness drive.
(b) Civic authorities in the city have recorded many cases of Cholera and gastro.
Ans : (B)
45. (a) Senior citizens of the city have complained about the late night disturbance caused due to loudspeakers used during festivals.
(b) Though, the Government has issued a directive banning late night celebrations involving use of loudspeakers, it is not being strictly followed in some of the areas.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) An organization wants to recruit Manager—HRD for its umbai division. The following criteria have been laid down, to be eligible for selection. The candidate must—
(a) Be a graduate in any discipline passed in first class with minimum 60% marks
(b) Have done post graduate degree/diploma in HRD or personnel management with minimum 65% marks
(c) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks
(d) Have cleared the interview with minimum 45% marks
(e) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.2.2007.
However, if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except for—
(i) At (b) above but has got-at-least two years post-qualification experience of working in HRD department case may be referred to the Chairman of the organisation.
(ii) At (c) above but has secured minimum 45% marks in selection test and 55% marks in interview the case may be referred to the President of the organization.
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2007. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Give answer—
(A) If the candidate is to be selected
(B) If the candidate is not to be selected
(C) If the case is to be referred to Chairman
(D) If the case is to be referred to President
(E) If the data provided is not adequate to decide the course of action
46. Nalini Zaveri has done her graduation in Arts in first class with 60% marks and postgraduate management diploma in HRD with 62% marks. Her date of birth is 16.1.1981. She has been working in the HRD department of a bank for past three years after completing her post-graduation diploma in HRD. She has secured 55% marks in selection test and 50% marks in interview.
Ans : (C)
47. Rajesh Nalawade is a B. Sc. In first class with 75% marks and post-graduate in personnel management with 60% marks. He is working as an Officer in administration department of an organisation for past two years. He has secured 55% marks in selection test and 52% marks in interview. He has completed 26 years of age in November 2006.
Ans : (B)
48. Shyam Bansode has passed B. Com. in first class with 65% marks and MBA in personnel management with 72% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks and interview with 52% marks. His date of birth is 17.5.1983.
Ans : (A)
49. Nikhil Agnihotri is a postgraduate in personnel management passed out in 2005 at the age of 24 years securing 71% marks. He has secured 62% marks in selection test and 57% marks in interview.
Ans : (E)
50. Sujata Shirke has passed out B. Com. in first class with 62% marks in 2003 at the age of 21 years. Thereafter she has done MBA with specialization in HRD with 72% marks. She has secured 48% marks in selection test and 58% marks in interview.
Ans : (D)