INTELLIGENCE BUREAU MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS) GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ASSISTANT CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE OFFICER – GRADE II/EXECUTIVE EXAMINATION – 2012 NOTIFICATION Intelligence Bureau (India) (IB) intelligence officer written test examination syllabus,Intelligence Bureau (India)(IB) previous years written test examination question papers, intelligence Bureau (India) (IB) Grade I I/Executive examination procedure pattern and all details,Intelligence Bureau (India)(IB) overview
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability-Answer
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.-Answer
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five-Answer
(c) Six
(d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy-Answer
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.-Answer
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.-Answer
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus-Answer
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.-Answer
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.-Answer
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.-Answer
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.-Answer
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP-Answer
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.-Answer
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.-Answer
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)-Answer
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.-Answer
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.-Answer
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin-Answer
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.-Answer
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide-Answer
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.-Answer
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation-Answer
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green-Answer
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.-Answer
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A-Answer
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.-Answer
27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta-Answer
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria-Answer
29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite-Answer
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US-Answer
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet-Answer
(d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”-Answer
(d) “all other things decreasing”
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar-Answer
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.-Answer
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.-Answer
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.-Answer
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India-Answer
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit-Answer
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.-Answer
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.-Answer
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual-Answer
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision-Answer
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.-Answer
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km-Answer
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh-Answer
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.-Answer
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas-Answer
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.-Answer
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.-Answer
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla-Answer
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath-Answer
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara-Answer
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878-Answer
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.-Answer
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.-Answer
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.-Answer
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade-Answer
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.-Answer
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclonesAnswer
(c) Lunar-eclipse-
(d) Solar eclipse
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.-Answer
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.-Answer
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses-Answer
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae
d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal-Answer
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus-Answer
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.-Answer
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.-Answer
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms
.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous-Answer
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.-Answer
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates-Answer
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.-Answer
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.-Answer
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.-Answer
73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.-Answer
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.-Answer
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.-Answer
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolatio
Directions : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
1. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153-Answer
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
2. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412-Answer
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
3. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04-Answer
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
4. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8-Answer
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
5. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105-Answer
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
6. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285-Answer
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
7. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11-Answer
(5) 1951.01
8. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930-Answer
(5) None of these
9. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15-Answer
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
10. 725 / 25 – 13 = ?
(1) 16-Answer
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
11. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these-Answer
12. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these-Answer
13. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25-Answer
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
14. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864-Answer
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
15. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546-Answer
(5) None of these
16. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25-Answer
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
17. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239-Answer
(5) 242
18. 484 of + 366 of = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668-Answer
(4) 848
(5) 666
19. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288-Answer
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
20 Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24-Answer
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
21 The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743-Answer
(5) Rs. 4.347
22 A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km-Answer
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
23. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820-Answer
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
24. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21-Answer
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
25. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these-Answer
26. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175-Answer
27. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216-Answer
(2) Rs.108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
28. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53-Answer
(5) 62
29. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56-Answer
(5) None of these
30. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704-Answer
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
31. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
5989 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372-Answer
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
32 If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204-Answer
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
33. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139-Answer
34 Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku’s share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these-Answer
35. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891-Answer
(5) None of these
36. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105-Answer
(4) 108
(5) 112
37. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years-Answer
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
38. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144-Answer
(5) 150
39. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20-Answer
40. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3-Answer
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
41. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job?
42. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200-Answer
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
43. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88-Answer
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these