# INFOSYS Aptitude Test

INFOSYS

Aptitude  Test (30Questions and 40 min).

Verbal Ability (40Questions and 35 min)

Section-A  Quantitative aptitude

1. Which number replaces the question mark?

Ans-0

2. WHAT IS THE TIME?

At what time are the two hands of a clock so situated that, reckoning as minute points past XII, one is exactly the square of the distance of the other?

3.  A bag contains 64 balls of eight different colours. There are eight of each colour (including red). What is the least number you would have to pick, without looking, to be sure of selecting 3 red balls?

Ans-59

4. Questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

Question: What will be the total weight of 10 poles, each of the same weight ?

Statements:

1. One-fourth of the weight of each pole is 5 kg.

2. The total weight of three poles is 20 kilograms more than the total weight of two poles.

A.        I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B.        II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C.        Either I or II is sufficient

D.        Neither I nor II is sufficient

E.         Both I and II are sufficient

Ans-C

5. Questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

Question: The last Sunday of March, 2006 fell on which date ?

Statements:

1. The first Sunday of that month fell on 5th.

2. The last day of that month was Friday.

A.        I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B.        II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C.        Either I or II is sufficient

D.        Neither I nor II is sufficient

E.         Both I and II are sufficient

Ans-C

6. Questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

Question: What is Nitin’s rank from the top in a class of forty students ?

Statements:

1. There are ten students between Nitin and Deepak.

2. Deepak is twentieth from the top.

A.        I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B.        II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C.        Either I or II is sufficient

D.        Neither I nor II is sufficient

E.         Both I and II are sufficient

Ans-D

7. In the question given below two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples.

Conclusions:

1. All the apples are parrots.

2. Some ants are apples.

A.        Only (1) conclusion follows

B.        Only (2) conclusion follows

C.        Either (1) or (2) follows

D.        Neither (1) nor (2) follows

E.         Both (1) and (2) follow

Ans-B

8. In the question given below two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:

1. Some dogs are cats.

2. Some cats are dogs.

A.        Only (1) conclusion follows

B.        Only (2) conclusion follows

C.        Either (1) or (2) follows

D.        Neither (1) nor (2) follows

E.         Both (1) and (2) follow

Ans-D

9. . In the question given below two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.

Conclusions:

1. All the trucks are scooters.

2. Some scooters are trucks.

A.        Only (1) conclusion follows

B.        Only (2) conclusion follows

C.        Either (1) or (2) follows

D.        Neither (1) nor (2) follows

E.         Both (1) and (2) follow

Ans-D

10. In the question given below two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All cars are cats. All fans are cats.

Conclusions:

1. All cars are fans.

2. Some fans are cars.

A.        Only (1) conclusion follows

B.        Only (2) conclusion follows

C.        Either (1) or (2) follows

D.        Neither (1) nor (2) follows

E.         Both (1) and (2) follow

Ans-D

All the faces of a cube are painted with blue colour. Then it is cut into 125 small equal cubes.

11. How many small cubes will be formed having no face coloured ?

A.        27

B.        8

C.        16

D.        24

Ans-A

12. How many small cubes will be formed having only one face coloured ?

A.        54

B.        8

C.        16

D.        24

Ans-A

13. Select the figure from a set of four figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) that can be formed by joining the figures given in box marked

Ans-D

14. Select the figure from a set of four figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) that can be formed by joining the figures given in box marked.

Ans-C

15. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:

A.        45 km/hr

B.        50 km/hr

C.        54 km/hr

D.        55 km/hr

Ans-B

16. Fayiz is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph, he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?

A.        8 kmph

B.        11 kmph

C.        12 kmph

D.        14 kmph

Ans-C

17. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:

A.        2.3 m

B.        4.6 m

C.        7.8 m

D.        9.2 m

Ans-D

18. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?

A.        12 days

B.        15 days

C.        16 days

D.        18 days

Ans-B

19. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in 24 days and C and A in 20 days. They all work together for 10 days when B and C leave. How many days more will A take to finish the work?

A.        18 days

B.        24 days

C.        30 days

D.        36 days

Ans-A

20. Mr. Ashraf  invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?

A.        Rs. 6400

B.        Rs. 6500

C.        Rs. 7200

D.        Rs. 7500

E.         None of these

Ans-A

21. Simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the compound interest on Rs. 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed on simple interest is:

A.        Rs. 1550

B.        Rs. 1650

C.        Rs. 1750

D.        Rs. 2000

Ans-C

22. When a plot is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15%?

A.        Rs. 21,000

B.        Rs. 22,500

C.        Rs. 25,300

D.        Rs. 25,800

Ans-C

23. Rajeesh, Rakesh and Ramesh jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that Rajeesh would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, Rakesh, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and Ramesh, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. Rajeesh wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of Rakesh in the profit.

A.        Rs. 1900

B.        Rs. 2660

C.        Rs. 2800

D.        Rs. 2840

Ans-B

24. Two tailers X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is paid 120 percent of the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?

A.        Rs. 200

B.        Rs. 250

C.        Rs. 300

D.        None of these

Ans-B

25. Present ages of Kareena and Kajol are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Kajol’s present age in years?

A.        24

B.        27

C.        40

D.        Cannot be determined

E.         None of these

Ans-A

26. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on Jan 1, 2009?

A.        Monday

B.        Wednesday

C.        Thursday

D.        Sunday

Ans-C

27. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?

A.        2 p.m. on Tuesday

B.        2 p.m. on Wednesday

C.        3 p.m. on Thursday

D.        1 p.m. on Friday

Ans-B

28. In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 13 m. In a race of 180 m, B will beat C by:

A.        5.4 m

B.        4.5 m

C.        5 m

D.        6 m

Ans-D

29. Find the odd man out.

3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

A.        21

B.        17

C.        14

D.        3

Ans-C

30. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes?

A.        648

B.        1800

C.        2700

D.        10800

Ans-B

Section- B Verbal Ability

Nehru’s was a many sided personality. He enjoyed reading and writing books as much as he enjoyed fighting political and social evils or residing tyranny. In him, the scientist and the humanist were held in perfect balance. While he kept looking at special problems from a scientific standpoint. He never forgot that we should nourish the total man. As a scientist, he refused to believe in a benevolent power interested in men’s affairs. but, as a self proclaimed non-believer, he loved affirming his faith in life and the beauty of nature. Children he adored. Unlike Wordsworth, he did not see him trailing clouds of glory from the recent sojourn in heaven. He saw them as a blossoms of promise and renewal, the only hope for mankind.

1. Nehru enjoyed

B.        fighting political and social evils

C.        resisting tyranny

D.        doing all the above and much more

Ans-D

2. Which of the statements reflects Nehru point of view?

A.        Humanism is more important than science

B.        Science is supreme and humanism is subordinate to it

C.        Science and Humanism are equally important

D.        There is no ground between science and humanism

Ans-C

3. A ‘many-side personality’ means

A.        a complex personality

B.        a secretive person

C.        a person having varied interests

D.        a capable person

Ans-C

4. In this passage, ‘a benevolent power interested in men’s affairs’ means

A.        a supernatural power of god

B.        beauty of nature

C.        the spirit of science

D.        the total man

Ans-A

5. Nehru though that children

A.        were tailoring clouds of glory

B.        held promise for a better future

C.        were like flowers to be loved and admired

D.        held no hope for mankind

Ans-B

Detective glories tend to glorify crime. Murderers, gangsters and crooks all kinds are described as tough, cunning and courageous individuals who know how to take care of themselves and how to get what they want. In James McCain’s The Postman Always Rings twice, for instance the villain is much more a impressive character than his victim. He is casual brave smart and successful with women. It is true that he finally gets caught. But he is punished for a crime that he did not commit, so that his conviction is hardly a triumph of justice. Besides, looking back over the exciting life of the criminal, the reader might conclude that it was worth the risk.

6. According to this passage, a criminal in a detective story generally gets caught

A.        for the crimes he has committed

B.        because of his careless mistakes

C.        because the police is smarter than the criminals

D.        for the crimes he has not committed

Ans-D

7. The passage mention James McCain

A.        as an author of detective stories

B.        as brave, smart, and successful with women

C.        as tough cunning and courageous

D.        as being more impressive than others

Ans-A

8. According to be passage given above, detective stories

C.        encourage readers to content crimes

D.        tend to create wrong notion about crimes and punishment

Ans-D/

9. According to the passage, the life of a criminal

A.        is exciting

B.        is hardly worth the risk

C.        is seldom presented in the right perspective

D.        ends in a triumph of justice.

Ans-C

10. Murderers, gangsters and crooks referred to in the passage given above

A.        always manage to get away

B.        are often glorified in detective stories

C.        are wiser than their victims

D.        know how to escape from law

Ans-B

11. Read the  sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.

B.        which was previously controlled by the British rulers

C.        is free now from the narrow vested interests.

D.        No error.

Ans-C

12. Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.

A.        Bible

B.        can be

C.        regarded as

D.        a great.

E.         No error.

Ans-A

13. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

EMBEZZLE

A.        Misappropriate

B.        Balance

C.        Remunerate

D.        Clear

Ans-A

14. In the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it without altering the meaning of the sentence.

The visitor had a bohemian look.

A.        hostile

B.        unconventional

C.        sinister

D.        unfriendly

Ans-B

15. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

I saw a …… of cows in the field.

A.        group

B.        herd

C.        swarm

D.        flock

Ans-b

16. Find the correctly spelt words.

A.        Hindrance

B.        Hinderrance

C.        Hindrence

D.        Hinderence

Ans-A

17. Find out that word, the spelling of which is WRONG. The letter of that word is the answer.

A.        Transmit

B.        Attribute

C.        Constitute

D.        Investegate

E.         All correct

Ans-D

18. In  sentence below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed in bold type, one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt.The letter of that word is answer

A.        Religious peoples are

B.        afraid of

C.        sinful

D.        actions

E.         All correct

Ans-E

19. There is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

Then

P :        it struck me

Q :       of course

R :       suitable it was

S :        how eminently

The Proper sequence should be:

A.        SPQR

B.        QSRP

C.        PSRQ

D.        QPSR

Ans-C

20. There is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

Since the beginning of history

P :        have managed to catch

Q :       the Eskimos and Red Indians

R :       by a very difficulty method

S :        a few specimens of this aquatic animal

The Proper sequence should be:

A.        QRPS

B.        SQPR

C.        SQRP

D.        QPSR

Ans-D

21. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct?

You need not come unless you want to.

A.        You don’t need to come unless you want to

B.        You come only when you want to

C.        You come unless you don’t want to

D.        You needn’t come until you don’t want to

E.         No correction required

Ans-A

22. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

She never visits any zoo because she is strong opponent of the idea of ……

A.        setting the animals free into forest

B.        feeding the animals while others are watching

C.        watching the animals in their natural abode

D.        going out of the house on a holiday

E.         holding the animals in captivity for our joy

Ans-E

23. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

S1:       Politeness is not a quality possessed by only one nation or race.

P :        One may observe that a man of one nation will remove his hat or fold his hands by            way of greetings when he meets someone he knows.

Q :       A man of another country will not to do so.

R :       It is a quality to be found among all peoples and nations in every corner of the earth.

S :        Obviously, each person follows the custom of his particular country.

S6:       In any case, we should not mock at others habits.

The Proper sequence should be:

A.        RPQS

B.        RPSQ

C.        PRQS

D.        QPRS

Ans-B

24. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom

To smell a rat

A.        To see signs of plague epidemic

C.        To suspect foul dealings

D.        To be in a bad mood

E.         None of these

Ans-C

25. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase.

The cricket match proved to be a big draw.

A.        a keen contest

B.        a huge attraction

C.        a lovely spectacle

D.        a game without any result

Ans-B

26. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.

I remember my sister taking me to the museum.

A.        I remember I was taken to the museum by my sister.

B.        I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.

C.        I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister.

D.        I remember taken to the museum by my sister.

Ans-B

27. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.

A child could not have done this mischief.

A.        This mischief could not be done by a child.

B.        This mischief could not been done by a child.

C.        This mischief could not have been done by a child.

D.        This mischief a child could not have been done.

Ans-C

28. Select the pair which has the same relationship.

WAN:COLOUR

A.        corpulent:weight

B.        insipid:flavour

C.        pallid:complexion

D.        enigmatic:puzzle

Ans-B

29. Select the pair which has the same relationship.

PORK:PIG

A.        rooster:chicken

B.        mutton:sheep

C.        steer:beef

D.        lobster:crustacean

Ans-B

30. Select the pair which has the same relationship.

DISTANCE:MILE

A.        liquid:litre

B.        bushel:corn

C.        weight:scale

D.        fame:television

Ans-A

31. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

RELINQUISH

A.        Abdicate

B.        Renounce

C.        Posses

D.        Deny

Ans-C

32. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

MORTAL

A.        Divine

B.        Immortal

C.        Spiritual

D.        Eternal

Ans-B

33. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.

1. him              2. the               3. To    4. charge                      5. handover

A.        42531

B.        51342

C.        41352

D.        45231

E.         52431

Ans-E

34. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.

1. killed           2. a      3. Jaswant       4. bear                         5. wild

A.        31254

B.        53124

C.        23145

D.        43125

E.         15234

Ans-A

35. Choose the correct alternative.

If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.

A.        If the room was brighter

B.        If the room are brighter

C.        Had the room been brighter

D.        No improvement

Ans-C

36. Choose the correct alternative.

He sent a word to me that he would be coming late.

A.        sent word

C.        sent words

D.        No improvement

Ans-A

Rearrange the following six sentences in proper sequence so as to for a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions (37-40)

1. The means and methods they employ to deal with public pressures are also different.

2. They will make no move unless the gallery is packed.

3. The poorest are over-hesitant, evasive and preoccupied with their relationships with                others.

4. Enourmous difference is generally observed in the ways in which various public officials        respond to public pressures.

5. The best possess understanding of forces that must be taken in to account, determination       not to be swerved from the path of public interest.

6. They confront all embarrassments with a state general formula.

37. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence ?

A.        2

B.        3

C.        4

D.        5

E.         6

Ans-D

38. Which of the following should be the third sentence ?

A.        1

B.        2

C.        3

D.        4

E.         5

Ans-C

39. Which of the following should be the second sentence ?

A.        1

B.        2

C.        3

D.        4

E.         5

Ans-A

40. Which of the following should be the first sentence ?

A.        6

B.        5

C.        4

D.        3

E.         2

Ans-C