CTS,Cognizant latest placement paper-anlytical reasoning verbal ability,Previous Year Question paper with Answer, Sample placement papers-2010,2011,2012 for new campus recruitment
1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?
Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.
2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap. At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?
3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.
Ans : 25296.
4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by 25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?
Ans: 60 kmph
5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth. You are given a conversation.
Person A– today is Sunday my name is Anil
Person B — today is Tuesday, my name is Bill
What day is today?
Ans: Today is Tuesday
6.. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?
7.. If a – b = 3 and a2 + b2 = 29, find the value of ab.
8. A trader owes a merchant Rs. 10,028 due 1 year hence. The trader wants to settle the account after 3 months. If the rate of interest 12% per annum, how much cash should he pay?
A. Rs. 9025.20
B. Rs. 9200
C. Rs. 9600
D. Rs. 9560
9. A pupil’s marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for the class got increased by half. The number of pupils in the class is
A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 73
10. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is
A) 17 kg B) 20 kg C) 26 kg D) 31 kg
Directions 11-15: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:
(A) statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(B) statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(C) both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) each statement alone is sufficient
(E) statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question
11. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?
x + y = 20
x = y²
12. Fifty percent of the articles in a certain magazine are written by staff members. Sixty percent of the articles are on current affairs. If 75 percent of the articles on current affairs are written by staff members with more than 5 years’ experience of journalism, how many of the articles on current affairs are written by journalists with more than 5 years’ experience? 20 articles are written by staff members. Of the articles on topics other than current affairs, 50 percent are by staff members with less than 5 years’ experience.
13. Is xy > 0 ?
x/y < 0
x + y < 0
14 One number, n, is selected at random from a set of 10 integers. What is the probability that ½ n + 13 = 0 ? The largest integer in the set is 13.
The arithmetic mean of the set is zero?
15. Is w a whole number? 3w is an odd number. 2w is an even number.
Directions (Question 16 to 19 ) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
i) There are six friends A,B,C,D,E and F
ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Vollyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo
iii) Each owns a different coloured car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.
iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow coloured car
v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow coloured car
vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton
vii) B does not play Tennis, he owns a red coloured car.
viii) A plays Cricket and owns a black car
16. Who plays Volleyball ?
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
17. Which coloured car F owns ?
C) Either Green or Blue
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
18. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct ?
A) Yellow – Polo
B) Green – Tennis
C) Black – Cricket
D) Red- Hockey
E) None of these
19. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and violinist ?
20. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?
(A) 5 km
(B) 7 km
(C) 2 km
(D) 14 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked 25 kms and finally turning left covered 20kms. How far was he from his house.
(A) 5 kms
(B) 10 kms
(C) 40 kms
(D) 80 kms
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. The door of Aditya’s house faces the east. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres, then turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres . Now Aditya is in which direction from the starting point?
(C) South- West
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R, and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is facing west. Then Q is facing ?
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1.30 p.m?
(E) None of these
26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then , turning to his right, he walks 30 metres . Then turning to his left, he walks 20 metres. again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres . How far is he from his initial position?
A. 20 metres
B. 30 metres
D. 80 metres
E None of these
27. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation? of
168 ? 15 ÷ 5 +? = 549 ÷ 9 + 235
5) None of these
28. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) are exactly equal. Which part is not equal to the other four parts? The number of that part is your answer.
1) 2x (x + 5) + 12
2) 2x (x + 3) + 3 (x + 4) + x
3) (x + 3)2 + (x + 1) (x + 3)
4) (x + 1 ) (2x + 3) + 2 (x + 3)
5) 2 (x + 1) (x + 3) + 2 (x + 3)
29. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the same work in 4 days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for two days, all of them stop working. How many women should be put on the jobto complete the remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3 days?
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
30. A shopkeeper sells milk which contains 5% water. What quantity of pure milk should be added to 2 liters of milk (containing 5% water) so that proportion of water becomes 4%?
1) 100 ml
2) 250 ml
3) 400 ml
4) 350 ml
5) None of these
Verbal Ability Test
Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.
Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves. As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old. Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead animals through paleontology. Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study. In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world. At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied, stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality. One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to better understand ourselves. The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of trained Tanzanians. Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for “helping millions of people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet.” She has been married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son. Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife Research, Education, and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment for all living things. Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an amazing human being.
Read this sentence from the article.
1. ‘But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal’. What is an antonym for the word focused?
2. What is the author’s purpose in writing this article?
A) to entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees
B) to inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation
C) to warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa
D) to describe the work and life of Jane Goodall.
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?
A) She knew a lot about Africa.
B) She knew a lot about African wildlife.
C) She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own.
D) She was interested in studying animals in the wild.
4. Which of the following is NOT true of chimpanzees?
A) Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away.
B) Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit.
C) Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food.
D) Different chimpanzees have different personalities.
5. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly forty years. What does authority mean?
A) an intelligent person
B) one who studies animals
C) a scientist
D) an expert
Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
There are some men who seem to be always on the lookout for trouble and, to tell the truth, they are seldom disappointed. Listening to such men one would think that this world is one of the stormiest and most disagreeable places. Yet, after all it is not such a bad place and the difficulty is often in the man who is too thin- skinned. On the other hand, the man who goes out expecting people to be like himself, kind and brotherly, will be surprised at the kindness he meets even in the most unlike quarters. A smile is apt to be met met with a respective smile while the sneer is just as apt to provoke a snarl. Men living in the same neighborhood may live vastly different lives. But it is not the neighborhood which is quarrelsome, but the man within us. And we have it in out power to change our neighborhood into a pleasant one by simply changing our own ways.
6. The passage is about
A) our disagreeable and hostile world
B) a kindly and pleasant world
C) our different and unresponsive world
D) the world and what one makes of it.
7. “…………..they are seldom disappointed”. The statement denotes that such men
A) welcome difficulties as a morale booster
B) do not have face any trouble
C) manage to keep unruffled in the face of discomforts
D) generally do not fail to come across troubles
8. The author’s own view of the world is that it is
A) one of the loveliest and quietest places
B) an unpleasant and turbulent place
C) one’s own excessive sensitivity that makes it a bad place
D) a sordid place for those who suffer in life
9. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the expression ‘thin-skinned’ as sed in the passage?
10. “On the other hand…………. unlikely quarter” The statement shows that people’s reaction to our attitude is
A) Generally indifferent
B) surprisingly responsive
C) often adverse
D) mainly favourable
Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
11. For a few seconds, Madan was………….blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car
12. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very…………..
13. The police have…………….a complaint against four persons
14. The improvement made by changes in the system was ………………..and did not warrant the large expenses.
15. The man who is……………………..hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither.
16. He is too……………….to be deceived easily
17. The Manager gave her his ….. that the complaint would be investigated
18. I am feeling …… better today.
Direction Questions19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
mark your answer as :
A. if the inference is ‘ definitely true’ i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage
B. if the inference is ‘ probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
D. if you think the inference is ‘ probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and
E. if you think inference is ‘ definitely false’ i.e. , it contradicts the given facts.
Urban services have not expanded fast enough to cope with urban expansion. Low investment allocation have tended top be under spent. Both public( e. g. water and sewage) and private (e.g. low-income area housing) infrastructure quality has declined. this impact of the environment in which children live and the supporting services available to them when they fall ill, seems clear. The decline in average food availability and the rise in absolute poverty point in the same satisfactory direction
19. There is nothing to boast about urban services
20. The public transport system is in the hands of private sector.
21. Birth rate is higher in Urban areas compared to rural areas.
22. Low-cost urban housing is one of the priorities
23. The environment around plays an important role on the health status.
Though the state cultivate only 3.2 lakh tonnes of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes. the government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper . An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.
24. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports.
25. The state also exports good quality grapes