ITC infotech placement

ITC infotech placement consist of three phase 1) Aptitude Test 2) Group Discussion 3) Interview only one)


Previous years Questions


Instructions for the section:
. The total time limit for the section is 15 minutes
. At the end of the time, please change to section III and DO NOT return to this section
. There is only one correct answer, tick mark the answer on the answer sheet in the correct box.
. There is no negative marking in the test

Directions: Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Q.1 While ________________ in his own approach of philosophy, the scholar was illogically,___________ his colleagues who averred that a seeker of knowledge must be free to select such doctrines as pleased him in every school.
A. indiscriminate……supportive of
B. electic……intolerant of
C. speculative….cordial to
D. problematical….dismissive of
E. theoretic…Impatient with

Q.2 We have in America a _____________ speech that is neither American, Oxford English, nor colloquial English, but ____________ of all three.
A. motley……….an enhancement
B. hybrid…….a combination
C. nasal…….a blend
D. mangled……a medley
E. formal…….a patch work

Q.3 It is somewhat paradoxical that, nine times out of ten, the coarse word is the word that ______ an evil and the_________ word that excuses it.
A. condemns….refined
B. exonerates….vulgar
C. Contradicts…crass
D. condones…genteel
E. admits….clever

Q.4 An University training enables a graduate to see things as they are, to go right to the point, to disentangle a ____________ of though.
A. line
B. strand
C. mass
D. plethora
E. skein

Q.5 When those whom he has injured accuse dhim of being a ____________, he retorted curtly that he had never been a quack.
A. libertine
B. sycophant
C. charlatan
D. plagiarist
E. reprobate

Choose a word given below that is nearly opposite to the word mentioned in CAPITALS
A. prior B. tardy C. devious D. manifest E. astronomical

A. frown B. disguise C. make indifferent D. make aware E. please

A. naïve B. accurate C. hostile D. Witty E. polite

A. resilience B. wickedness C. independence D. righteousness F. humility

A. apologise B. sanctify C. make worse D. rule illegal E. rebuke

Instructions for Questions 11-15: Select the best alternative to the portion in the sentence which is underlined. If you think the underlined portion is the best option, Select answer A. Be attentive to matters of grammar, diction and syntax as well as clarity, precision and fluency. Do not select the answers which alters the meaning of the original sentence.

Q.11 Using it wisely, leisure promotes health, efficiency and happiness.
A. Using it wisely
B. If used wisely
C. Having used it wisely
D. Because it is used wisely
E. Because of usefulness

Q.12 We want the teacher to be him who has the best rapport with the students.
A. We want the teacher to be him
B. We want the teacher to be he
C. We want him to be the teacher
D. We desire that the teacher be him
E. We anticipate that the teacher will be him.

Q.13 She not only was competent but also friendly in nature.
A. She not only was competent but also friendly.
B. Not only was she competent but friendly also.
C. She not only was competent but friendly also
D. She was not only competent but also friendly.
E. She was not only competent but friendly also.

Q.14 When one eats in this restaurant, you often find that the prices are high and the food id poorly prepared.
A. When one eats in this restaurant, you often find
B. When one eats in this restaurant, one often find
C. As you eat in this restaurant, you often find
D. If you eat in this restaurant, you often find
E. When one ate in this restaurant, he often found

Q.15 May I venture to say that I think this performance is the most superior I have ever heard.
A. May I venture to say that I think this performance is the most superior.
B. May I venture to say that this performance is the most superior.
C. May I say that this performance is the most superior.
D. I think this performance is superior to any.
E. This performance is the most superior of any.

Instructions for the section:
. The total time limit for the section is 20 minutes
. At the end of the time, please change to section III and DO NOT return to this section or to section-I
. There is only one correct answer, tick mark the answer on the answer sheet in the correct box.
. There is no negative marking in the test

Direction: Each question or a group of question is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be. useful to draw a Tough diagram. For each answer, select the best answer choice given below.

Questions 1 – 4
At a formal dinner for eight; the host & hostesses are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table. with three persons along each side. Each man must be seated next to at least one Woman and vice-versa. Allan is opposite Di!1nne, who is not the hostess George has’ a woman on his right and is opposite a woman Helga is at the hostess’s right, next to Frank One person is seated between Belinda & Carol.
Q 1 Eric is the eighth person present. Eric must be :
I. the host II. seated to. Diane’s right III. seated opposite Carol
A) I onIy B) III only C) I & II only D) I, II, III

Q 2 If each person is placed directly opposite his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married?
A. George & Helga
B. Belinda & Frank
C. Carol & Frank
D. George & Belinda
E. Eric & Helga

Q 3 Which person cannot be seated next to a person of the same sex?
A. Allan B. Belinda C. Carol D. Diane E. Eric

Q 4 George is bothered by the cigarette smoke of his neighbor and exchanges seat with the person four places to his left. Which of the following must be true following the exchange?
I. NO one seated between two persons of the opposite sex.
II. One side of the table consists entirely of persons of the same sex
III. Either the host or the hostess has changes seats.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I & II only”
D. II & III only
E. Neither I, II nor III.

Q 5 Ram is standing to the right of Sita. Kaushalya is standing on the opposite side of Sita. Since the opposite of right is wrong, Kaushalya must be standing on the wrong side of Ram.Which of the following logical errors has the author ‘of the argument above committed?
A. He has used a single term to mean two different things
B. He has confused cause & effect
C. He has assumed to be true what he wants to prove to be true
D. He has provided no factual evidence for his conclusion
E. He has drawn a general conclousion from an insufficient number of examples.

Questions 6-7:
If Dr.Seymore’s theory is correct, then the events she predicts will happen. Then events she predicted did happen. Therefore her theory must be correct.
Q 6 Which of the following arguments has a logical structure that most nearly resembles that of the argument above ?
A. If we win the game, we will be the league champions, we won the game; therefore we are the league champions.
B. If the fan is running, then the electricity must be on. The electricity is on; the fan must be running.
C. If the store is open, I will buy a shirt. I think the store is open: therefore, I should be able to buy a shirt.
D. If Alice answers her phone, then my prediction is correct. I predict that she is at home, therefore, she will answer her phone.
E. If Ted’s flight is delayed, he will miss his appointment. He kept his appointment: therefore his flight must have been on time.

Q 7 The conclusion drawn in the argument above would be valid if which of the following were true?
A. Only Dr.Seymour’s theory fully explains the events which happened.
B. If the events Dr.Seymour predicted happen, then her theory is correct.
C. If Dr. Seymour’s theory is correct, then the events she predicted may happen.
D. Only Dr.Seymour’s predicted the events which happened.
E. If the events Dr.Seymour predicted happen, then Dr.Seymour’s theory may be correct.

Questions 8-10:
A, B, C or W may cause D
B, C or W may cause E
W or X may cause F
D or E may cause G or H only if D & E are caused by B or C; D or E may cause 1 only if D and E are caused by C.
Only E & F together may cause M or N
F may cause H only if it is caused by W or X

Q 8 Which can result from the largest number of immediately preceding events?
A. D B. E C. F D. M E. N

Q 9 Which can result in the smallest number of subsequent events, counting both those that follow immediately and those that follow after another event?
A. A B. B C. C D. W E. X

Q 10 How many different events or combinations of events may cause H?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 E. 9

Q 11 Donors are almost never offended by being asked for too much (in fact, they are usually flattered).And if you ask for too much, your donor can always suggest a smaller amount. On the other hand, donors are frequently offended by being asked for too little. A common reaction is “so that’s all they think, I am worth of”.
The above statement assumes that:
A. Donors are usually never asked for enough.
B. A good fund raiser will value the worth of a donor
C. It is worth the gamble to ask for large donations
D. Fund raisers often think that donors are incapable of giving much
E. Donors are seldom offended by fund raisers.

Q 12 In 1950, the average child visited the dentist once a year, by 1970, the number of visits had increased to two. Today, the average child visits the dentist three times in a year.Each of the following, if true, could explain this trend, except:
A. Dentist fees have declined over the period.
B. Better home care of teeth have reduced the number of cavities
C. Dental care has become less painful.
D. Parents are more aware of the importance of dental care.
E. Tax benefits for deducting dental expenses have increased.

Q 13 There are many reasons why individuals want to run their own businesses. Some foresee more personal satisfaction if they are successful in launching their own business, while others are interested mainly in prospect of larger financial rewards. Since the late 1970’s and early 1980’s, tax regulations and other changes have encouraged increasing number of venture capitalists and entrepreneurs to start new enterprises. Since 1980, some one-half million new ventures have been started. Not all succeeded, of course.
The above statement makes which of the following assumptions?
A. Success in starting a new business depends in large pari on sound financial planning
B. Social incentives are associated with new business starts,
C. Financial incentives are associated with new business starts.
D. Most new business ventures succeed initially but fail later on
E. Venture Capitalists are motivated by non-monetary gains.

Q 14. Between 1940 and 1945 gasoline consumption in the US dropped about 35 % because of the war time rationing. In the same period, lung cancer in the US white males declined by approximately the same percentage. Between 1914 and 1950 lung cancer mortality increased nineteen fold and the rate of gasoline consumption increased at the same rate. Which of the following facts, if true would weaken the above arguments?
A. For each of the years between 1939 and 1949, lung cancer among urban blacks in the US remained at the same rate.
B. The amount oflead in gasoline increased between 1916 and 1944
C. After 1950 the gasoline consumption jumped.
D. During world war II, people suffering from cancer were forbidden to drive.
E. Women frrst began driving in large numbers between 1941 and 1951

Q 15 Building codes required that all public building constructed aiter 1980 to have reinforced-steel bomb shelters installed.From which of the following can the statement above be inferred?
A. Public buildings had to be installed reinforced steel bomb shelters after 1980
B. No bomb shelters other than reinforced steel shelters were instttlled in public buildings after 1980 but all public buildings constructed after 1980 were required to hav~ bomb shelters
C. Some public buildings constructed before 1980 had installed bomb shelters.
D. Bomb shelters were not required in pl.lblic buildings before 19080 but some were installed voluntarily.
E. Before 1980, public buildings had bomb shelters but not necessarily made of reinforced steel.

Instructions for the section:
. The total time limit for the section is 10 minutes
. At the end of the time, please change to section II and DO NOT return to this section
. There is only one correct answer, tick mark the answer on the answer sheet in the correct box.
. There is no negative marking in the test

Q. 1 A train covers the distance d between two cities in h hours arriving J. hours late. What rate would permit the train to arrive on schedule?
A) h·2 B) d!h – 2 C) dlh-2 D) dh·2 E) dlh+2

Q.2 In a group of 15, 7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek and 3 have not studied either. How many of these have studied both Latin & Greek?
A) 0 1 3n C) 4 D) 5 E) 7

Q. 3 Colorful Pain Company contracts to paint three house. Mr. Brown can paint a house in 6 days, while Mr. Pink would take 8 days and Mr. Blue would take 12 days. After 8 days Mr. Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Pink begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr. Blue to complete the contract?
A)7 B) 8 C) 1l D) 12 E) 13

Q. 4 A box is made in form of a cube. If a second cubical box has inside dimensions three times those of the first box, how many times as much does the second box contain?
A)3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12

Q. 5 One wheel rotates once every 7 minutes and anothl::r ratales once every 5 minutes. How often will both begin to rotate at the same time?
A) Every 6 minutes B) Every 12 minutes C) Every 17.5 minutes D) Every 35 minutes F) Every 70 minutes

Q. 6 If the side of a square increases by 40 %, then the area of the square increases by :
A) 16% B) 40% C) 96% D) 116% E) 140%

Q. 7 A fanner wishes to build a fence around a rectangular field. The field is 100 feet long and 60 feet wide. The fence will be of stone on one side and of wire on the other three sides. Stone cost Rs. 5 a foot and wire costs Rs. 2 a foot, How much will the fence cost?
A) Rs.320 B)Rs.620 C) Rs.760 D) Rs.80Q E) Rs.940

Q. 8 Which one of the following has the greatest value?
A) 0.3 B) J 0.3 C) L2/5 D) 1/3 E) O.Ol1t

Q. 9 If the product of 3 consecutive integers is 210, then the sum of two smaller integer is:
A) 5 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13 E) 18

Q. 10 The price of a garment is reduced by 20 %. During an “early bird” special all garments are rnarked “take an additional 30 % off reduced price”. The two reductions are equivalent to a single reduction of :
A) 25% B) 44 % C) 50% D) 56% E) 60%

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